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NEW QUESTION: 1
Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load balancer. Your management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you implement this for each deployment?
A. Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2 instance that is currently being deployed to.
B. Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the deployment, and then switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.
C. Using AWS CloudFormation, create a test stack for validating the code, and then deploy the code to each production Amazon EC2 instance.
D. Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability, de-register each Amazon EC2 instance from the load balancer, upgrade it, and test it, and then register it again with the load balancer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The below diagram shows how this can be done

1) First create a new ELB which will be used to point to the new production changes.
2) Use the Weighted Route policy for Route53 to distribute the traffic to the 2 ELB's based on a 80-20% traffic scenario. This is the normal case, the % can be changed based on the requirement.
3) Finally when all changes have been tested, Route53 can be set to 100% for the new ELB.
Option A is incorrect because this is a failover scenario and cannot be used for Blue green deployments. In Blue Green deployments, you need to have 2 environments running side by side.
Option B is incorrect, because you need to a have a production stack with the changes which will run side by side.
Option D is incorrect because this is not a blue green deployment scenario. You cannot control which users will go the new EC2 instances.
For more information on blue green deployments, please refer to the below document link: from AWS
https://dOawsstatic.com/whitepapers/AWS_Blue_Green_Deployments.pdf

NEW QUESTION: 2
No-load funds have traditionally been
A. distributed by direct marketing.
B. distributed by brokers.
C. distributed by a sales force.
D. rare.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
No-load funds have traditionally been distributed by direct marketing because brokers had little incentive to sell them. Distribution has been done through mail, telephone, bank wire, or office of the fund. More recently, some no-load funds have developed agreements with some brokerage firms to sell the funds in return for a fee.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Mary Pierce, CFA, has just joined The James Group as a fixed income security analyst. Pierce has taken over for Katy Williams, who left The James Group to start her own investment firm. Pierce has been reviewing Williams's files, which include data on a number of securities that Williams had been reviewing.
The first file had information on several different asset-backed securities. A summary schedule that Williams had prepared is shown in Exhibit 1.
Exhibit 1: Summary Schedule

The second file included the following schedule of information relating to a specific CMO thai Williams had been considering. Exhibit 2 reflects the results of a Monte Carlo simulation based on 15% volatility of interest rates. This security is stil! available, and Pierce needs to evaluate the investment merit of any or all of the listed tranches.

A third file contained notes Williams had laken at a seminar a couple of months ago on valuing various types of asset-backed and mortgage-backed securities. These notes included the following comments that Pierce found interesting:
"Cash flow yield (CFY) is one method of valuing mortgage-backed securities. An advantage of the CFY is that it does not rely on any specific prepayment assumptions. An important weakness of CFY is the assumption that interim cash flows will be reinvested at the CFY. This is rarely true for mortgage-backed securities."
"Cash flow duration is similar to effective duration, but its weakness is that it fails to fully account for changes in prepayment rates as cash flow yields change. Empirical duration suffers two disadvantages as a measure of interest rate exposure: reliance on theoretical formulas and reliance on historical pricing data that may not exist for many mortgage-backed securities."
"The recent increase in the default rate for subprime adjustable rate mortgages can be traced to the structure of these loans. The negative amortization feature of these loans basically gave the borrower an at-the-money call option on their property. Once the property decreased in value, this call option was worthless, and the borrower had no incentive to make any additional payments." Evaluate the validity of Williams's comments regarding different duration measures. Her comments as to the weaknesses of each duration measure were:
A. correct with regard to both duration measures.
B. correct only with regard to empirical duration.
C. correct only with regard to cash flow duration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cash flow duration assumes that one prepayment rate will apply over the life of an MBS for whatever change in interest rates is assumed. Empirical duration is reliant on historical prices that might not be easily available, but it does NOT rely on any theoretical valuation models. The values are based on historical pricing relationships. (Study Session 15. LOS 57.h)